It’s not very strict IMHO. It’s more likely, rather strict.
More about start time is in the definition of “Late antiquity” term. (Otherwise should rid off Huns and Goths civs and campaigns. Western Roman civ too.)
For the common “western” end of medieval time Christopher Columbus’s first voyage to the Americas in 1492 often used, considering as turn of events influence from regional European to global scale (bye Drake scenario, and 3 last missions of de Almeida campaign. The same for Bayinnaung, Ismail I campaigns and Lepanto, Kyoto, Shimazu, Nobunaga, Noryanjin scenarios).
Also traditionally often used 1453 (fall of Eastern Roman empire, if focused on Roman legacy aspect) or 1517 (considering more religious aspect, 95 theses publication, start of Protestant Reformation). Or another close dates depending on history of particular state, if not regional or global scale.
Technically, not fall, but rather, annulation of title of the western Roman emperor due to refuse of eastern emperor Zeno neither appoint new nor support exiled western emperor Julius Nepos after forced abdication of usurper, Romulus Augustulus, by Odoacer, recognized as vicegerent of Zeno in Italy. But yes, it is considered as the end of Western Roman Empire.
Concerning the Renaissance - it was local cultural phenomenon in the north of Italy, which has no influence abroad (for almost century) before the end of 15th cent. Later it became the standard of European culture. In that case we have different times for particular countries regarding to local artists, scientists and philosopers activity. It’s not strict common date.